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Problemen NAW 5/18 nr. 2 juni 2017

149

Pr obl em en

Redactie:

Gabriele Dalla Torre Christophe Debry Jinbi Jin Marco Streng Wouter Zomervrucht Problemenrubriek NAW Mathematisch Instituut Universiteit Leiden Postbus 9512 2300 RA Leiden

problems@nieuwarchief.nl www.nieuwarchief.nl/problems

| Problem Section

This Problem Section is open to everyone; everybody is encouraged to send in solutions and propose problems. Group contributions are welcome. For each problem, the most ele- gant correct solution will be rewarded with a book token worth € 20. (To compete for the book token you should have a postal address in The Netherlands.)

Please send your submission by e-mail (LaTeX is preferred), including your name and ad- dress to problems@nieuwarchief.nl.

The deadline for solutions to the problems in this edition is 1 September 2017.

Problem A

Show that there are no infinite antichains for the partial order # on Nk defined by ^x x1 2, ,f,xkh

, , , y y1 2 fyk

#^ h iff xi#yi for all i, 1 # # .i k

Problem B

A sector is a portion of a disk enclosed by two radii and an arc. For each pair of radii, there are two com- plementary sectors. If the two complementary sectors have unequal area, then we say that the larger sector is the major sector.

Let S be a subset of the plane. We say that x!S is virtually isolated if x is the only element of S in a major sector of a disk centered on x. Suppose that all elements of S are virtually isolated. Prove that S is countable.

Problem C (proposed by Hendrik Lenstra)

Let n be a natural number 12 . Suppose that for every prime p1 we have that pn n/ (p-1)n+1modn2. Prove that n= .2

Edition 2016-4 We received solutions from Pieter de Groen, Alex Heinis and Toshihiro Shimizu.

Problem 2016-4/A (folklore)

For a finite sequence s=( ,s1f, )sn of positive integers, denote by ( )p s the number of ways to write s as a sum s=

/

in=1a ei i+

/

nj=-11b ej( j+ej+1) with all ai and bj non-negative. Here ei denotes the sequence of which the i-th term is 1 and of which all the other terms are 0.

Show that there exists an integer B> such that for any product F of (positive) Fibonacci 1 numbers, there exists a finite sequence s=( ,s1f, )sn with all si!{ , ,1 2f, }B such that

( ) p s = .F

Solution We received solutions from Pieter de Groen, Alex Heinis and Toshihiro Shimizu.

The book token goes to Pieter de Groen. The following solution is based on that of Alex Heinis.

Let s=( ,s1f, )sm be a finite sequence of positive integers. We say that s is left safe if s1$s2, right safe if sm$sm 1- , and safe if they are both left safe and right safe. Let

( , , ),

s= s1gsm t=( ,t1g, )tn be finite sequences of integers with ,m n$1. We define the join s t0 of s and t as the sequence ( , ,s1gsm-1,sm+t t1 2, ,g, )tn. Note that taking the join of sequences is associative.

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150

NAW 5/18 nr. 2 juni 2017 Problemen

Opl ossin gen

| Solutions Moreover, if ( , , )s s sm1f= is a finite sequence of positive integers, define

( ) ( , ) : ( ) ,

V s a b Zn Zn s a ei i b e e

i n

j j j

j n

0 01

1 1

1 1

#

= ! $ $- = + +

= +

=

*

/ /

- 4

so that # ( )V s =p s( ), and define

( ) : ( )

W s b Zn s b ej j ej

j n 01

1 1 1

! $

= $- + +

=

*

/

- 4

(where we take the usual partial order on the set of finite sequences of some fixed

length). Then we have a bijection ( )V s "W s( ) given by ( , )a b 7b, with inverse

( ),

b s b ej j ej b

j n

1 1

7 - 1 + +

=

f

/

- p

, so also

# ( )W s =p s( ). We will then show the following.

Lemma. Let s be a right safe sequence, and let t be a left safe sequence. Then (p s t0 )= ( ) ( )

p s p t .

Proof. Write s=( ,s1f, )sm and t=( ,t1f, )tn. Since for any b!W s( )and c!W t( ), we have sm+t1$bm-1+c1, concatenation of sequences defines a map ( )W s #W t( )"W s t( 0 ). Sin- ce s is right safe, for any d!W s t( 0 ), we have sm$sm-1$dm-2+dm-1$dm-1, so we have a map (W s t0 )"W s( ) sending ( )di im n=+ -1 2 to ( )di im=-11. By a similar argument, since t is left safe, we have a map (W s t0 )"W t( ) sending ( )di im n=+ -1 2 to (dm- +1 i i)n=-11, and therefore also a map (W s t0 )"W s( )#W t( ), which by construction is the inverse of the concatena-

tion map. Hence (p s t0 )=p s p t( ) ( ).

Now we return to the problem. Let Fn be the n-th Fibonacci number, where we take as convention F0=F1= . Let F1 in 1Fm

=

%

= i be a product of Fibonacci numbers. We may as- sume that each Fmi is at least 2, that F2 occurs at most twice (since F5= ), and therefore 8 that if mi= , then i2 = or i1 = .n

Let si denote the sequence of mi ones; it is well-known then that ( )p si =Fmi for all i.

Then note that s1 is right safe, that all si with 2# #i n- are of length at least 3 1 and safe, and that sn is left safe. Moreover, as si has length 3 if 2# #i n- , we see 1 that s10g0si is right safe if 2# #i n- . Hence inductively applying the lemma gives 1

( ) ( )

p s10g0sn =

%

in=1p si =F, as required.

Problem 2016-4/B (folklore)

Let , be a prime number. For any group homomorphism :f A"B between abelian groups and for any integer n$0, denote by fn the induced homomorphism /A ,nA"B/,nB. Let ( )kn n 03= and ( )cn n 03= be sequences of integers.

Show that there exist integers , ,N a b$0 and a group homomorphism :( /f Z ,NZ)a"( /Z ,NZ)b such that for all n$0 we have # ker fn=,kn and # coker fn=,cn if and only if k0=c0= 0 and the sequences (kn+1-kn n)3=0 and (cn+1-cn n)3=0 are non-negative, non-increasing, eventually zero, and there is a constant C such that for all n such that kn+1-kn and cn+1-cn are not both zero, their difference is C.

(Recall that the cokernel coker f of a group homomorphism :f A"B between abelian groups is the quotient of B by the image of f.)

Solution We received a solution from Alex Heinis, who is also rewarded the book token for this problem. The second part of the following solution is similar to that of Alex Heinis.

Write A=( /Z ,NZ)a and B=( /Z ,NZ)b, and write An=A/,nA and Bn=B/,nB. Moreover, for all n$0, let kn=log(#logker,fn). We show they satisfy the required properties.

For all n$0, let in=log(#logim,fn). Note that the quotient map B"Bn sends im f to im fn, and the induced map imf"imfn is surjective with kernel im f+ ,nB. By the structure theo- rem for finitely generated abelian groups (and as im f is ,N-torsion), there exist unique

, ,

t1ftN$0 such that im f,

+

iN=1( /Z ,iZ)ti. Moreover, we have ,nB=B[,N n- ] if n#N and B,n = otherwise, so 0 imf+ ,nB=(imf)[,N n- ] if n#N and im f+ ,nB= otherwise. 0

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Problemen NAW 5/18 nr. 2 juni 2017

151

Opl ossin gen

| Solutions We deduce that

( , )

( , ) ( ) ,

min

max

i jt j N n t

j n N0 t j n N t

n j

j N

j j

j j N

j N n j

1 1

1 1

= - -

= + - = + -

= =

= = - +

/ /

/ /

and that in j jtj N

=

/

=1 otherwise.

Therefore, for all n$N we have in+1-in=0. Moreover, note that in in j N ntj N 1- =

+

/

= -

if n< , so that (N in+1-in) (- in-in-1)=tN n- for all 1#n<N.

First note that k0=c0= , and ,0 k cn n$0 for all n$0 (as , to that power is the order of a group). Now we use the isomorphisms An/ kerfn"imfn and Bn/ imfn"cokerfn to see that we have kn=min( , )n N a i- and n cn=min( , )n N b i- for all n. Therefore:n

– If 1#n<N, then

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )

( ) ( )

k k k k c c c c

i i i i t 0

n n n n n n n n

n n n n N n

1 1 1 1

1 1 #

- - - = - - -

= - - - = -

+ - + -

- + -

If n$N, then kn+1-kn=cn+1-cn=0;

– Moreover, kN kN a iN iN a Nj t

1 1 1 j

- - = - + - = -

/

= , and cN cN b j tj

N

1 1

- - = -

/

=

As j tj N

1

/

= is the minimum number of generators of im f and A maps surjectively to im f, it follows that kN-kN 1- $0. As j tj

N 1

/

= is the dimension over F, of (im f , and )[ ] (im f)[ ], 3B[ ],, it follows that cN-cN 1- $0. Therefore we see that (kn+1-kn n)3=0 and (cn+1-cn n)3=0 are non-increasing sequences that are eventually zero, hence they are

non-negative as well.

Finally, note that for n< , we have (N kn+1-kn) (- cn+1-cn)= -a b, which shows that the sequences ( )kn n 03

= and ( )cn n 03

= satisfy the required conditions.

For the converse, suppose that ( )kn n 03

= and ( )cn n 03

= satisfy the conditions in the pro- blem. Let N be the smallest integer n$0 for which kn+1-kn=cn+1-cn=0. Let for

n N

0# < , rn=(kn-kn-1) (- kn+1-kn)=(cn-cn-1) (- cn+1-cn), which is non-negative as the sequences (kn+1-kn n)3=0 and (cn+1-cn n)3=0 are non-increasing. Moreover, let sk=kN-kN 1- and let sc=cN-cN 1- . Consider the map

( / ) ( / ) ( / ) ( / )

f Z NZ s Z NZ r Z Z Z Z

n

N N s N r

n N

1 1

1 1

k n" c n

| , 5 , , 5 ,

= -

=

+ +

-

of which the matrix in block form (with respect to the given splitting into summands) is the diagonal matrix with diagonal (0sc#sk,,$Ir1,,2$Ir2,f ,, N-1$IrN 1)

- .

A couple of observations: first note that if n$N, then fn= . Moreover, we note that for f n< , the induced mapN

( / ) ( / ) ( / ) ( / )

fn Z nZ s Z nZ r Z Z Z Z

i

N n s n r

i N

1 1

1 1

k i" c i

| , 5 , , 5 ,

= -

=

+ +

-

is given by the same matrix as the one defining f. And finally, we note that therefore

( )

kerfn ker0s s i ker I

N i

1 r 1

c k5 , $ i

= # =

+

- .

Let us show by induction on n that # ker fn=,kn and # coker fn=,cn for all n. First of all, for n= , note that f0 0 is the map 0"0, so k0=c0= . Now let 0 0 <n#N, and suppose that # ker fn-1=,kn 1- and # coker fn-1=,cn 1- . Note that # ker fn=,nsk+/iN 1=-1min( , )i n ri and that # ker fn-1=,(n-1)sk+ i=1min( ,i n-1)ri

N 1-

/ . Therefore #kerfn/#kerfn s r

1 k i n

N i

, 1

- = +/=- ; by de- finition of sk and the ri, the exponent is by a telescoping sum equal to kn-kn 1- . Hence

#kerfn k k #kerf

n k

n n 1 1 n

, ,

= - - - = . Similarly, we show that # coker fn=,cn.

Finally, we note that for n> , we have #N kerfn=#kerfN=,kN=,kn, as for all i> , we N have ki+1-ki=0; and similarly, we have # coker fn=,cn.

Problem 2016-4/C (folklore)

Let R be the polynomial ring over Z with variables xi, yi, zi for all i!Z. Let S be the polynomial ring over Z with variables ti for all i!Z. Let : Rx "R be the isomorphism of rings given by xi7xi 1+ , yi7yi 1+ and zi7zi 1+ .

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152

NAW 5/18 nr. 2 juni 2017 Problemen

Opl ossin gen

| Solutions Consider the morphism :f R S" of rings given by x t t ti i i i1 17 - + , y ti i37 and z ti i27 . Does

there exist a finite number of elements , ,r1frn!R such that the kernel I of f is generated as an ideal in R by {xir ij: !Z,j=1,f, }n?

Solution We received no solutions for this problem. The answer is no.

We assume monomials to be monic. Moreover, we will abuse notation by setting x|S"S to be the automorphism of rings sending ti to ti+1 for all i!Z. Let M3R denote the set of monomials of R, and let N3S denote the set of monomials of S. Then f maps M into N. Moreover, identifying (as groups) R with

+

m M! Z$m and S with

+

n N! Z$n, we see that f R| "S is given by

,

x m x n

( ) m

m M m

m f n

n N 1

7

! ! f ! - p

/ / /

for xm zero for all but finitely many m!M. Finally, we note that for all x!R, we have

( ) ( )

f xx =xf x.

Let, for x=

/

m M! x mm !R and n!N, the n-th homogeneous part be xn= m f 1( )n x mm

! -

/

.

Then note that x!I, if and only if for all n!N, we have xn!I, and x=

/

n N! xn, where we note that xn is zero for all but finitely many n!N, as the same is true for the xm for m!M. So let us say that an element of the form m f 1( ) mn x m

! -

/

in R is homogeneous

with respect to n.

Write Rn=

+

m f! -1( )nZ$m. Then note that |f Rn is injective if and only if #f-1( )n #1. So consider the set 'N 3N of n!N such that #f-1( )n $2, where we take the partial order on N given by divisibility by an element of f(M), i.e. n#n if there exists an m!M such that ( )nf m =n'.

Define, for integers k$1 and i, the monomial nk i, t ti i3 ti ti k ti k 1 2g 3 1 3 3

= + + + - + . We deter-

mine f-1(nk i,). Let m!f-1(nk i,). Since n only has two exponents of at least 2, we see that the total y,z-degree of m is at most 2. Moreover, the degree of n is k3 + , so com-5 paring degrees modulo 3, we see that m must be divisible by either y zi i+3k or yi+3k iz. In the first case, write m=m y z' i i+3k, and note that ( )f m' =ti+1gti+3k. By induction on k, one can show that m’ must be equal to xi+2xi+5gxi+3k-1, therefore m must be mk i, ,1=xi+2xi+5gxi+3k-1y zi i+3k. In the same way, one shows in the second case that m must be equal to mk i, ,2=xi+1xi+4gxi+3k-2yi+3k iz. Since both of them do map to nk,i, we find that f 1(nk i,) {mk i, , ,mk i, , }

1 2

- = . In particular, nk i, !N', and ker f|Rnk i, is generated by mk i, ,1-mk i, ,2.

Moreover, nk,i is minimal in N’; if n!N' divides nk,i in f(M), then for ,m m m1 2, '!M such that m1!m2, ( )f m1 =f m( 2)= and ( ) ( )n f m f m1 ' =f m f m( 2) ( )' =nk i,, we have {m m m m1 ', 2 '}={mk i, ,1,mk i, ,2}. Since gcd m( k i, ,1,mk i, ,2)= , it follows that 1 m’= and there-1 fore that n=nk i,.

Now we can prove our answer. Let G be any subset of R-{ }0 such that I is generated by {xag a: !Z,g!G}. We show that G is infinite. Let G’ denote the set of non-zero homo- geneous parts of elements of G, and note that G is finite if and only if G’ is. Then I is also generated by {xag a': !Z,g'!G'}.

Note that for all k$1, we have mk, ,0 1-mk, ,0 2!I, and write mk, , mk, , ,' a g, ' ag'

0 1- 0 2=

/

a ga x , for some aa b, !R that are zero for all but finitely many pairs (a,b); we may assume that the aa,b are homogeneous, by taking the nk,o-th homogeneous part of this identity if necessary.

If (a,g’) is such that aa g, '!0, and if g’ is homogeneous with respect to n, then xan!Nand na n,

# k 0

x , so by minimality of nk,0 it follows that na n,

x = k 0. Moreover, ker f|Rnk 0, is generated by mk, ,0 1-mk, ,0 2, so xag' is a non-zero integer multiple of mk i, ,1-mk i, ,2. It fol- lows that for any k$1 there exists ’gk!G such that g’k is a non-zero integer multiple of

(m, , m, , )

a k0 1 k0 2

x - for some a!Z. Now x preserves total degrees, so the total degree of g’k

is that of mk,0,1 and mk,0,2, which is k 2+ . In particular, G’ contains elements of every total degree that is at least 3, so G’ (and therefore G) is infinite, as desired.

Rectification

In the list of solvers of 2016-3/B, Rob van der Waall was missing, but should have been there. We apologise for this omission.

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